click and drag to draw a ray from the yellow dot. to redraw, click and drag from the yellow dot again. $\text{m}\angle efg = 72^\circ$ $\text{m}\angle efh = 36^\circ$ $\text{m}\angle gfh = 36^\circ$ $\text{which of the following statements is true?}$ $\text{answer}$ $\circ$ $\text{m}\angle efg = \text{m}\angle efh$ $\circ$ $\text{m}\angle efg = \text{m}\angle gfh$ $\circ$ $\frac{1}{2}(\text{m}\angle efg) = \text{m}\angle efh$ $\circ$ $\text{m}\angle efh = \frac{1}{2}(\text{m}\angle gfh)$

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# Brief Explanations:
We are given $ m\angle EFG = 72^\circ $ and $ m\angle EFH = 36^\circ $. Let's check each option:
- For the first option: $ m\angle EFG = 72^\circ $ and $ m\angle EFH = 36^\circ $, so $ m\angle EFG
eq m\angle EFH $.
- For the second option: Calculate $ \frac{1}{2}(m\angle EFG) $. Substitute $ m\angle EFG = 72^\circ $, we get $ \frac{1}{2}\times72^\circ = 36^\circ $, which is equal to $ m\angle EFH = 36^\circ $. So this statement is true.
- For the third option: $ m\angle EFG = 72^\circ $ and $ m\angle GFH = 36^\circ $, so $ m\angle EFG
eq m\angle GFH $.
- For the fourth option: $ \frac{1}{2}(m\angle GFH)=\frac{1}{2}\times36^\circ = 18^\circ $, which is not equal to $ m\angle EFH = 36^\circ $.

# Answer:
$\frac{1}{2}(m\angle EFG)=m\angle EFH$ (the option with this statement)

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