Question

is the measure of $\angle 1$ equal to the measure of $\angle 2$? why?
\bigcirc\\ yes, because they intercept the same arc
\bigcirc\\ no, because the sides of $\angle 2$ are longer
\bigcirc\\ no, because they intercept the circle at different points

Explanation:

In circle geometry, inscribed angles that intercept the same arc are equal in measure. ∠1 and ∠2 both intercept the same arc (the arc opposite to them), so their measures should be equal. The length of the sides of the angle (option B) or different interception points (option C) are not relevant to the measure of inscribed angles.

Answer:

A. yes, because they intercept the same arc