Question

using the first corollary to the inscribed angle theorem. is the measure of ∠1 equal to the measure of ∠2? why? yes, because they intercept the same arc no, because the sides of ∠2 are longer no, because they intercept the circle at different points

Explanation:

The first corollary to the inscribed - angle theorem states that inscribed angles that intercept the same arc are congruent. The measure of an inscribed angle depends only on the arc it intercepts, not on the lengths of its sides or the specific points of intersection with the circle.

Answer:

yes, because they intercept the same arc