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what does it mean to the rise over run when the slope is an integer? a.…

Question

what does it mean to the rise over run when the slope is an integer?
a. the rise number is one\t\t\tc. the run part of the slope is going to be one
b. the run number is always negative\t\td. there will be no slope

please select the best answer from the choices provided

○ a
○ b
○ c
○ d

Explanation:

Brief Explanations

The slope formula is $m=\frac{\text{rise}}{\text{run}}$. When the slope $m$ is an integer (e.g., $m = 2$, which can be written as $\frac{2}{1}$), the "run" part of the slope (the denominator) is 1. Let's analyze each option:

  • Option A: The "rise" number isn't necessarily 1 (e.g., slope 3 has rise 3, run 1), so A is wrong.
  • Option B: The run isn't always negative (e.g., slope 2 has run 1, positive), so B is wrong.
  • Option C: For an integer slope, we can express it as a fraction with denominator 1 (run = 1), so this is correct.
  • Option D: An integer slope exists (e.g., slope 1, 2, etc.), so D is wrong.

Answer:

C. the run part of the slope is going to be one