Question

is the given function invertible over its entire domain? why, or why not?○ yes, it is invertible, because each input maps to a unique output.○ yes, it is invertible, because f is a function.○ no, it is not invertible, because the input maps to multiple outputs.○ no, it is not invertible, because f is not a function.inputs: -3, 1, 5outputs: 1, 2, 3

Explanation:

A function is invertible if it is one-to-one (each input maps to a unique output, and each output maps to exactly one input). In the given mapping, every input has a distinct, unique output, and no output is shared by multiple inputs, so it is a one-to-one function, making it invertible.

Answer:

Yes, it is invertible, because each input maps to a unique output.