Question

is the measure of $angle 1$ equal to the measure of $angle 2$? why?
○ yes, because they intercept the same arc
○ no, because the sides of $angle 2$ are longer
○ no, because they intercept the circle at different points

Explanation:

In circle geometry, inscribed angles that intercept the same arc of a circle are congruent (equal in measure). ∠1 and ∠2 both intercept the 58° arc of the circle, so their measures are equal. The length of the angle's sides or different intercept points on the circle do not affect this property when they share the same intercepted arc.

Answer:

yes, because they intercept the same arc